Is the Apocrypha inspired revelation?

tomgroeneman's picture

According to the first completed Canon of Scripture at the Council of Carthage in AD 419, the apocryphal books were adopted as biblical. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf214.xv.iv.iv.xxv.html Why do not the protestant Churches consider them scriptural? Most contemporary Bibles exclude the apocryphal books but even the original King James Version included them. Are they any less inspired than the other books of the Bible?

DanFugett's picture

Thank you JWMCMAC

We probably wont ever agree on matters like the Apocrypha and I am not trying to refute your view of it. However I want to thank you for expressing your loyalty to your church while leaving judgement in the Hand of God. You mentioned something here that interests me though. Does the Orthodox Church accept books of the new testament that the Roman Catholic Church doesnt accept? Maybe I misunderstood what you meant. If not, what are those books and how does one know when those books were accepted or rejected by the pre-Split church? (A lot of people think the Reformation aplit the universal Christian church organizagtion but actually that happened in 1054 when the Pope and Eastern Patriarch excommunicated each other.) I guess I didnt realize those two branches have differnt Bibles too. I am curious whether the Apocryphal books of the "eastern Churches" support doctrines peculiar to that branch of Christianity too?

I am referring to this part of your post
"
Then there is the apocrypha which neither the Protestant nor the Catholic has ever accepted, but which some eastern Churches may accept.

This later are the true apocrypha . . . and have never been a part of the Canon of Sacred Scripture of the Universal and Holy Catholic Faith."

Submitted as a poster,

In Christ,

Dan Fugett, Sr Moderator
dfugett2010@gmail.com




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