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Is the Apocrypha inspired revelation?

tomgroeneman's picture

According to the first completed Canon of Scripture at the Council of Carthage in AD 419, the apocryphal books were adopted as biblical. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf214.xv.iv.iv.xxv.html Why do not the protestant Churches consider them scriptural? Most contemporary Bibles exclude the apocryphal books but even the original King James Version included them. Are they any less inspired than the other books of the Bible?

Panoramicromantic's picture

I don't think I'm following you Beemanlee

The Church fathers rejected nothing out of a desire to remove "Jewish books." If that had been the case, they would be more like Marcion and the gnostics and removed the whole OT. The truth is that the rejecting came from the Protestant side starting with Luther. He rejected books that were no less Jewish than any that now make up the Protestant OT. Indeed, he would even have even rejected the epistle of James if he thought he could have gotten away with it.
I have a deep fondness for Luther (especially his 95 theses) but after it was clear that his movement had gained enough power that it would be impossible to stop, he often did things that were more inspired by ego than God lead sense. His meddling with the canon, his dogmatic support of the aristocracy against the peasants and his polemical tracts like "The Jews and Their Lies" all indicate a man that didn't handle his new position of authority very well. I must say that Calvin displayed those characteristics to an even larger degree. He was an accomplice to murder i.e. the execution of Servetus. Both these men often displayed poor judgment. I cannot take everything they said and did as divinely inspired, quite the opposite in fact. Their acceptance of the MT and the rejection of the apocrypha showed poor judgment.