Is the Apocrypha inspired revelation?

tomgroeneman's picture

According to the first completed Canon of Scripture at the Council of Carthage in AD 419, the apocryphal books were adopted as biblical. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf214.xv.iv.iv.xxv.html Why do not the protestant Churches consider them scriptural? Most contemporary Bibles exclude the apocryphal books but even the original King James Version included them. Are they any less inspired than the other books of the Bible?

ElderDad's picture

Neither Old nor New Testament

As I understand it, the biggest issue is that Protestants maintain that the Jewish scholars know what books are Old Testament canon. We accept their list, although we vary on the order and grouping of the books. The Apocrypha is not included in Jewish canon. Neither is it New Testament canon, so it fails to make it into the list of inspired writings. Even if the Apocrypha were without error, it would still not be included under these criteria. Not all historically accurate books are Scripture.

Dave S.
Senior Moderator, Volunteers for Proofreading
2 Tim. 3:16--All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable
for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.




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