Why is the Bible True and other Scriptures False?

dgshaw's picture

This has been a question that has plagued me for a long time, especially given my extensive study of other scriptures in addition to our own and my thorough study of historical/critical reflection on the Bible.

It seems to me either:

A. we must ACCEPT the premise "our scripture is true, theirs are not" on FAITH alone
B. we must DEMONSTRATE the premise "our scripture is true, theirs are not" RATIONALLY.

I would relish hearing a sound and sane discussion on this issue.

Thank you.

In Christ


jwmcmac's picture

NTC said: "d) Judaism has

NTC said:

"d) Judaism has the same canon of scripture as Protestant Christianity, some other groups accept more, but no Christian group rejects any book of the Jewish canon."

jwmcmac comments:

That is true . . . that no book of the Jewish Canon is rejected by any Christian group or by the Church.

. . . but . . .

Of course you all know that the Jews changed their canon about 100 years after CHRIST, going back to the Aramaic canon which preceded CHRIST's coming by about 600 years.

The Jews went back to this prior Canon because the 'Greek Septuagint' Canon in use in CHRIST's day was being used by the Church to convince that JESUS Was the CHRIST as well as perhaps other Christian Teachings relating to the Church . . . this being what the Protestants later did not like about this Canon, so the Protestants at that time going back to the Aramaic Canon as well.

The Church has always used the Greek Canon till this day.

The Protestant Reformers changed and went back to the Aramaic Canon in the 1500's.

GOD Bless us all.