Submitted by michael_legna on Sun, 2008-11-23 19:14.
I don't know that there is an answer either - I was offering a conjecture.
jqlogan said -
I can understand that God is superior to man in every way but I cannot understand why you are using His superiority to man in the context of free will and sin as if it explains why Lucifer and man abused their free will while God does not.
My point is God gave Lucifer and man a free will and God did not intend us to sin. Therefore Lucifer and man must have abused that free will. Maybe I am wrong in my conjecture but I see no better solution.
I too am not sure we can make any further headway.
I don't know that there is an answer either
I don't know that there is an answer either - I was offering a conjecture.
jqlogan said -
I can understand that God is superior to man in every way but I cannot understand why you are using His superiority to man in the context of free will and sin as if it explains why Lucifer and man abused their free will while God does not.
My point is God gave Lucifer and man a free will and God did not intend us to sin. Therefore Lucifer and man must have abused that free will. Maybe I am wrong in my conjecture but I see no better solution.
I too am not sure we can make any further headway.