Pre- mid- or post-?
Submitted by chadrory on Sat, 2007-12-22 23:11.
I've been discussing the tribulation issue with some friends of mine this evening... We are all over the place. Every one of us supports one of the other. Me, well, I am of the opinion that Jesus is coming back. Plain and simple. I would love to hear your opinion.
Chad.
This II Peter:
No, it was not by following artfully contrived false stories that we acquainted YOU with the power and presence of our Lord Jesus Christ, but it was by having become eyewitnesses of his magnificence. For he received from God the Father honor and glory, when words such as these were borne to him by the magnificent glory: "This is my son, my beloved, whom I myself have approved." Yes, these words we heard borne from heaven while we were with him in the holy mountain. Consequently we have the prophetic word [made] more sure;
Not a matter of false prophecy, just a willingness to accept plain language over "ear-tickling" and "traditions of men". All the to-from, "my son", and other grammar-school language of the bible shows Jehovah and Jesus to be separate people, not some mystical hypostasis. Like John 1:1, for instance. In my bible it says "the Word was with God". One person "with" another equals two people. Grammar-school math. But perhaps your bible is different.
Come to think of it, I do know of one explicit statement of the Trinity, covering the equality of all three "persons". 1 John 5:7,8. Not in my bible that way, but I'm told it's in some. Probably the NIV or the RSV would have it; good Trinitarian bibles all.
Search the scriptures; for in them you think you have "Trinity" or hypostasis or "God the Son" or filioque. But where?
Unless etc. all scriptures are NWT
Doug