Pre- mid- or post-?
Submitted by chadrory on Sat, 2007-12-22 23:11.
I've been discussing the tribulation issue with some friends of mine this evening... We are all over the place. Every one of us supports one of the other. Me, well, I am of the opinion that Jesus is coming back. Plain and simple. I would love to hear your opinion.
Chad.
agreed
"Son of Man" does often mean, born to mankind, or simply a human being. But in the psalms, they started characterizing Israel as a single human entity, and that's where the metaphor starts to develop.
Why is it that so many of Jesus' parables talk about the return of the Son of Man, and that the theme of his preaching was "The TIME (Daniel's time+times+1/2time) is FULFILLED. THE KINGDOM OF HEAVEN IS AT HAND." He sends his disciples out to talk about the "gospel of the kingdom," and tells some that "they will see the kingdom of God come with power before they die," (after which is reported the Transfiguration). All that said, why WOULDN'T Jesus borrow a metaphoric title for Israel and apply it to his own person?
"Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life." John 5.39-40