Pre- mid- or post-?
Submitted by chadrory on Sat, 2007-12-22 23:11.
I've been discussing the tribulation issue with some friends of mine this evening... We are all over the place. Every one of us supports one of the other. Me, well, I am of the opinion that Jesus is coming back. Plain and simple. I would love to hear your opinion.
Chad.
I don't get the full import of this post,
but I recall you once said that "son of man" is a metaphor for the church [in most cases, I guess], not a literal person singular.
I fail to see that in your cites, except for Ps 80. I understand the Hebrew scriptures' use of Israel the man as metaphor for Israel the nation, and that nation being a vineyard that Jehovah specially cultivated, etc. etc. I'm not ready to use the same for Jesus/spiritual Israel.
That psalm is very interesting because the key words as you give them (KJV) are indeed much the same in several other versions I use for comparisons, BUT quite different in the NWT (which the Witnesses made up for themselves etc. :-) )
That passage deserves more study; I will get back to you.
In the meantime, I found this in the Watchtower's Insight on the Scriptures:
Because the angelic interpretation of the vision in Daniel 7:18, 22, and 27 speaks of "the holy ones of the Supreme One" as taking possession of this Kingdom, many commentators have endeavored to show that the "son of man" is here a 'corporate personality,' that is, 'the saints of God in their corporate aspect, regarded collectively as a people,' 'the glorified and ideal people of Israel.'
Daniel's prophecies, of course, are good touchstones for 'transferring' OT precursors into NT fulfillments. ("And he said, Go thy way, Daniel; for the words are shut up and sealed till the time of the end.")
Is this "corporate personality" business what you have in mind? The whole idea is new to me.
Unless etc. all scriptures are NWT
Doug