Should we trust the Septuagent like the Holy Spirit does?

trueseek1's picture

Recently read that the men who were under the infallible inspiration of the Holy Spirit and wrote down what we call New Testament, quoted almost always the Septuagent version of the Old Testament even when it disagrees with the Hebrew version even slightly. Wondering are we "liberals" who use modern scholarly techniques to lower the trustworthiness of the Greek Old Testament translation (LXX) by trusting the Hebrew version instead? Can not understand how I as a Bible believing Christian can justify such a move since I believe the New Testament authors were under the infallible inspiration of the Holy Spirit when they quoted from the Septuagent version of the Old Testament? It seems also the early Church fathers almost exclusively quoted from the same greek translation to strongly point to Christ as the fulfiller of all old testament prophecies. Eusebius was specially illuminating on this one recently.

Appreciate any other Bible believers' viewpoints on this one.

humbly,

trueseek1's picture

Jerome's choice versus Christ's use of Old Testament LXX

As for New testament quotes, how many more can one need than the ones provided above? But if you need more, simply follow the link provided above to many many more please.

Your statements unfortunately make it seem like you follow Jerome's lead and I follow Christ's, but I do not want it to seem that way. Why a beautiful ascetic believer with idealization of the monastic life like Jerome did not heed the advice of so many other Christian teachers and leaders, including Augustine, is a question he has possibly already answered to God for already sometime after September 420 a.d., and in humility is probably praying for us not to follow his earthly lead :-). My question is still a question seeking honest answers, for which the answer that Jerome preferred hebrew versions does not provide the authority above Jesus' quotes and the authors of the New Testament and above almost all faithful early church teachers' clear preference to quote from the Septuagint in their quoting of the Holy Word of God? I am looking for a logical answer to this dilemma, since I am not a scholar in the ranks of those who translated the Bible, but now am beginning to wonder if they did so, because they were taught by their spiritual "fathers", who somewhere had been led by humanists rather than by the faithful witness of the early Christians and Christ Himself?

I am thankful that we have the NAS, NIV, the Living Bible, The Message and all other translations and "paraphrases" of the Bible since I came to know Christ through reading them some 14 times thus far, and I am not as fluent in greek as I need to be yet, but I still wonder why the translators in the west do not follow the early church's strong preference to almost always quote from the Septuagint.

humbly in His Service

humbly in Christ,
Anthony
http://ancientfaith.com/podcasts/illuminedheart/my_conversion_from_islam_to_orthodox_christianity_-_part_1




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