Matt 6:12: Is our forgiveness from God and our forgiveness of others reversed?

mike petersen's picture

I heard a person explain today that in Matt 6:12 the early church had reversed the subject verse and placed "our" request for forgiveness from God ahead of our forgiveness of others. It originally would have read ""as we forgive our debtors, forgive us our debts." He referenced some early documents, including some early Armenian scriptures. I can't find anything relating to his comments..........anyone got any ideas or references?

Blessings, Michael

Oliver128's picture

without the 'originals' who can say anything for sure

καὶ (and) ἄφες (remit) ἡμῖν (to us) τὰ (the) ὀφειλήματα (debts) ἡμῶν (of us), ὡς (as) καὶ (even) ἡμεῖς (we) ἀφίεμεν (remit) τοῖς (to) (the) ὀφειλέταις (debtors) ἡμῶν·(of us)

the first pronoun (ἡμῖν) is in the 1st person Dative plural and rendered ‘to us’
the next pronoun (ἡμῶν) is in the 1st person Genitive plural and rendered ‘of us’ or ‘our’
the next pronoun (ἡμεῖς) is in the 1st person Nominative plural and rendered ‘we’
the final pronoun (ἡμῶν) is in the 1st person Genitive plural and rendered ‘of us’ or ‘our’

the 1st ‘remit’ is in the 2nd Aorist Active Imperative 2nd person singular ~ the Aorist tense has the idea of an event that happened usually in the past but not necessarily and does not indicate whether the event has concluded or is continuing ~ the Active voice tells us that the Subject (you ~ our Father) is performing the action and the Imperative mood is usually considered a ‘command’ but here certainly more like a ‘strident plea’

in association with the 1st ‘remit’ we see the 1st pronoun ‘to us’ (Dative case) which is receiving the action of the 1st ‘remit’

the 2nd ‘remit’ is in the Present Active Indicative 1st person plural ~ the Present tense means that the action is happening right now and is continuing ~ the Active voice tells us that the Subject (we) is performing the action and the Indicative mood means that this is the truth from the writer’s or subject’s perspective

in association with the 2nd ‘remit’ we see ‘to the Debtors’ (Dative case) which is receiving the action of the 2nd ‘remit’

To suggest that the entire ‘original’ NT was written in Aramaic has no basis in fact ~ even as the suggestion that prompted your question has no basis in fact ~ Matthew ‘may’ have been ‘originally’ composed in Hebrew or Aramaic BUT there is no extant ‘early’ copy of this book in either ‘original’ language.

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Gal 4:6 And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying out, "Abba, Father!"




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