Discussing the word "ALL" in 2 Cor. 5:14

JeffLogan's picture

2 Cor. 5 (NIV)

    14 For Christ’s love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died.
    15 And he died for all, that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for him who died for them and was raised again.

I want to focus on the word "ALL" in this passage. What is the scope of the word "ALL?"

"...One died for all, and therefore all died."

Is it that everyone died with Christ on the cross and some just don't know it or won't believe it?

noprem's picture

My take on it:

Verses 14-17: “For the love of Christ constraineth us; because we thus judge, that if one died for all, then were all dead: And [that] he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again. Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we [him] no more. Therefore if any man [be] in Christ, [he is] a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.” KJV from blueletterbible.org

My take on it: Before Christ died for us, we were dead from original sin, not to mention our own. (Rom 5:12) Paul, who was saved if anyone was, will live forever in heaven ‘with the Lord’. (1 Thes 4:17) So also will those of his brothers (and sisters) who accept salvation and act on it. (John 3:16, 36)

Note that v.36 KJV says, “He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.” However, a better translation- and a more sensible one- is one of those which have, ‘don’t obey’ rather than ‘don’t believe’. This shows that there is a next step from belief, if salvation is to come at the end: to obey Jesus and his Father thereafter. (Darby has ‘be subject to’; same idea.) Those who go the NFL route (“John 3:16 :-) ) think that the requirements end there. They do not: Mt 7:21-27.

Another illustration of one ‘being dead’ while alive to an observer is at Mt 8 and Lu 9: A man says he will follow Jesus ‘after burying his father’. Jesus says ‘Follow me now [and you will live]; “let the dead bury their dead.”’ That is, ‘those of your family who stay to bury him are themselves still dead from sin, as above.’

Therefore, "everyone died with Christ on the cross and some just don't know it or won't believe it" is not the case IMO; his death opened an opportunity for all to live.

End 'My take on it'